Covariance of exogenous shocks
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Hi,
we are simulating the asset market model by Bansal and Yaron. Results seems to be correct, but in the output the covariance matrix of shocks shows values equal to 0 for the covariance between each shock and itself. How can it be possible?
Thank you
we are simulating the asset market model by Bansal and Yaron. Results seems to be correct, but in the output the covariance matrix of shocks shows values equal to 0 for the covariance between each shock and itself. How can it be possible?
Thank you