Nominal interest rate as jump variable
Posted: Mon Jul 31, 2006 9:10 am
I use Dynare to calculate a second-order approximation to a New Keynesian model already available as a linearized version in the literature. There the gross nominal interest rate R is assumed being a jump variable. To verify the correctness of my model I calculate a first-order approximation of my model to compare the IRF to those resulting from the linearized system available in the literature.
Assuming R as a jump variable in the linearized system is unproblematic while I have to assume R as predetermined in the first-order approximation of my model because otherwise Dynare has a problem with the Blanchard-Kahn conditions.
To get a better idea here are the equations from the optimization problem of the household causing the problems together with some explanations.
(1) c(t)^(-sigma)=lambda(t) + mu(t)
where lambda and mu are the Lagrange multiplier of the budget constraint and the CIA constraint, respectively
Euler equation
(2) lambda(t)=beta*E_t[lambda(t+1)*R(t+1)/Pi(t+1)]
where Pi is the inflation rate and R is the gross nominal interest rate
(3) lambda(t)=beta*E_t{[lambda(t+1)+mu(t+1)]/Pi(t+1)}
Because of certainty equivalence when linearizing the system one can transform (1) into
(1a) lambda(t)= c(t)^(-sigma)/R(t)
As a result there is only an R(t) left but no R(t+1) (R(t+1) in the Euler equation cancels out).
Nevertheless I have to pay attention to the expectation operators and can not do this simplification. But this leaves me with R(t+1) in the Euler equation which causes a Blanchard-Kahn condition problem.
I understand that it is per se problematic to have the interest rate determined in t+1. The question now is if Dynare is not able to ignore the expectational operators in a first-order approximation. Because if I use equation (1a) instead of (1) as part of my equation , that is do the simplification by hand, this gives me the same results as the linearized system.
I appreciate your help.
Regards,
Bj
Assuming R as a jump variable in the linearized system is unproblematic while I have to assume R as predetermined in the first-order approximation of my model because otherwise Dynare has a problem with the Blanchard-Kahn conditions.
To get a better idea here are the equations from the optimization problem of the household causing the problems together with some explanations.
(1) c(t)^(-sigma)=lambda(t) + mu(t)
where lambda and mu are the Lagrange multiplier of the budget constraint and the CIA constraint, respectively
Euler equation
(2) lambda(t)=beta*E_t[lambda(t+1)*R(t+1)/Pi(t+1)]
where Pi is the inflation rate and R is the gross nominal interest rate
(3) lambda(t)=beta*E_t{[lambda(t+1)+mu(t+1)]/Pi(t+1)}
Because of certainty equivalence when linearizing the system one can transform (1) into
(1a) lambda(t)= c(t)^(-sigma)/R(t)
As a result there is only an R(t) left but no R(t+1) (R(t+1) in the Euler equation cancels out).
Nevertheless I have to pay attention to the expectation operators and can not do this simplification. But this leaves me with R(t+1) in the Euler equation which causes a Blanchard-Kahn condition problem.
I understand that it is per se problematic to have the interest rate determined in t+1. The question now is if Dynare is not able to ignore the expectational operators in a first-order approximation. Because if I use equation (1a) instead of (1) as part of my equation , that is do the simplification by hand, this gives me the same results as the linearized system.
I appreciate your help.
Regards,
Bj