mean of productivity shock counterintuitive
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Hi everybody,
Just discovered Dynare and I'm kinda impressed. Self-instructing myself and running some .mod-files with RBC models I discovered the following curiosity:
The mean of the Z, which is the productivity shock that follows the AR(1) process ln(Z)=rho*ln(Z(-1))+eps where mean(eps)=0 and var(eps)>0, is 1.0005. Shouldn't it be 1? PBAP1.mod which is an example file where the problem occurs is enclosed. When entering the AR(1) equation without ln but inserting everwhere else exp(Z) when the shock appears Dynare delivers a mean of zero. What is the problem?
Many thx in advance and kind regards
Peter Schmid
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Just discovered Dynare and I'm kinda impressed. Self-instructing myself and running some .mod-files with RBC models I discovered the following curiosity:
The mean of the Z, which is the productivity shock that follows the AR(1) process ln(Z)=rho*ln(Z(-1))+eps where mean(eps)=0 and var(eps)>0, is 1.0005. Shouldn't it be 1? PBAP1.mod which is an example file where the problem occurs is enclosed. When entering the AR(1) equation without ln but inserting everwhere else exp(Z) when the shock appears Dynare delivers a mean of zero. What is the problem?
Many thx in advance and kind regards
Peter Schmid
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