Hi
I have a probelm with the timing convention, hopefully it is pretty easy to solve.
I have a capital accumulation equatin which includes a capital quality shock.
I standard notation I have
Y_t=f[K_t]
K_t = Tau_t*(I_t-1+(1-d)*K_t-1 )
with Y output in t, K capital at beginning of t, I investment in t, Tau capital quality shock known and effective in t
If there were no Tau it wouldnt be a problem:
K = I+(1-d)*K(-1)
Y = f[K(-1)]
But if I write:
K = Tau*(I+(1-d)*K(-1)) then the shock is known 1 period in advance and investment takes this into account. Which is not the case in the above equation.
Writing
K = Tau(+1)*(I+(1-d)*K(-1)) doesnt work because now we have expectations.
K(-1)=Tau*(I(-1)+(1-d)*K(-2)) doesnt work either because now everthing apart from Tau is predetermined.
How can I deal with that problem?
Thanks!
Dominik