Welfare Analysis: first-best versus competitive equilibrium
Posted: Thu Sep 22, 2016 6:23 pm
Hi all,
I am trying to estimate welfare loss a in competitive equilibrium relative to first-best allocation. The model is a standard RBC model with no labour: two agents - household with log utility - and firm. Firm has access to the decreasing returns to scale production technology AK^alfa. To fund investment in capital, it borrows from household. There is a government subsidy to capital - per each unit of capital investment, firm receives zetaK units of subsidy. Subsidy is financed by lump sum taxes. The first best allocation is characterized by
E[M(alfa*A*K^{alfa-1} + (1-delta)] = 1, where M = (C/C(-1))^{-1},
while the CE allocation is is characterized by
E[M(alfa*A*K^{alfa-1} + (1-delta)] = 1 - zeta.
Basically, firm perceives capital less expensive than it is in reality and as a result overinvests in capital. As far as I understand, the highest welfare should be achieved in FB. But when I calculate E[V] in FB and CE, I get the opposite ranking
V = log(C) + beta*V(+1).
Can somebody explain why this is the case? or where is my mistake? I attache the two model setups. Btw, I have also tried second-order approximation.
Thank you,
Tetiana
I am trying to estimate welfare loss a in competitive equilibrium relative to first-best allocation. The model is a standard RBC model with no labour: two agents - household with log utility - and firm. Firm has access to the decreasing returns to scale production technology AK^alfa. To fund investment in capital, it borrows from household. There is a government subsidy to capital - per each unit of capital investment, firm receives zetaK units of subsidy. Subsidy is financed by lump sum taxes. The first best allocation is characterized by
E[M(alfa*A*K^{alfa-1} + (1-delta)] = 1, where M = (C/C(-1))^{-1},
while the CE allocation is is characterized by
E[M(alfa*A*K^{alfa-1} + (1-delta)] = 1 - zeta.
Basically, firm perceives capital less expensive than it is in reality and as a result overinvests in capital. As far as I understand, the highest welfare should be achieved in FB. But when I calculate E[V] in FB and CE, I get the opposite ranking
V = log(C) + beta*V(+1).
Can somebody explain why this is the case? or where is my mistake? I attache the two model setups. Btw, I have also tried second-order approximation.
Thank you,
Tetiana