BKK model with a bond

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BKK model with a bond

Postby kyri82 » Tue May 17, 2016 3:15 pm

Hi all,

I am trying to solve a simple, two-country model with incomplete markets - i.e. a single bond. I am not sure what I am doing wrong but Dynare cannot solve the model - BK conditions not satisfied. I believe the model is well specified and the steady-state is solved. What is interesting is that if I set the bond-clearing condition as:
Code: Select all
B1(-1) + B2(-1) = 0 ;
(which I believe is the correct way to set it since bonds is a predetermined variable) the model fails the BK conditions. If I set this to
Code: Select all
B1+ B2 = 0 ;
the model is solved but I am a bit skeptical about the results.

Any help would be very much appreciated.

Thanks a lot!

K.
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Re: BKK model with a bond

Postby jpfeifer » Tue May 17, 2016 7:28 pm

Shooting from the hip, I would argue that the second one is the correct market clearing condition. On some level they are equivalent, of course. But at time t, a feasible allocation must satisfy
Code: Select all
B1+ B2 = 0;

While
Code: Select all
B1(-1) + B2(-1) = 0;

needs to hold as well at time t, it is a condition on past choices that does not constrain the choice of B1 and B2, because the values were decided on in the past.
------------
Johannes Pfeifer
University of Cologne
https://sites.google.com/site/pfeiferecon/
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Re: BKK model with a bond

Postby kyri82 » Wed May 18, 2016 4:44 pm

Thanks a lot! To avoid confusion, I have replaced B2 with -B1 and then the equilibrium condition becomes redundant. It is nevertheless good to have these discussions to enhance awareness on Dynare.

If I may ask, how would you interpret the extreme sensitivity of the results to the elasticity of substitution (parameter theta_1) especially at values 0.35-0.45 (i know this is a very important parameter in IBC models). Note that at these low values the model attains a unit root. Is that the reason behind these big differences in the results, despite small movements in the parameter? Also, why is there a unit root? Assuming the model is well specified, is that a pathological case? Note that at low values of theta, omega (the degree of home-bias) gets pretty close to 1 (0.98-0.99...)

Thanks!

Best,
K.
kyri82
 
Posts: 141
Joined: Thu Feb 10, 2011 6:14 pm
Location: Toulouse - France


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