Basic question about investment adjustment costs.

This forum is closed. You can read the posts but cannot write. We have migrated the forum to a new location where you will have to reset your password.
Forum rules
This forum is closed. You can read the posts but cannot write. We have migrated the forum to a new location (https://forum.dynare.org) where you will have to reset your password.

Basic question about investment adjustment costs.

Postby Lexes9 » Fri Jul 01, 2016 11:13 pm

Sorry for the basic question.
I am trying to model a representative firm that rents capital goods to firms producing intermediate variables. I need to introduce capital adjustment costs.

1) I know this is very basic, but I cannot understand how to get the F.O.C from the optimisation problem in the attached file (from Garcia and Restrepo (2007)). I know that Q is tobin's Q, the lagrange multiplier that arises when maximising (26) s.t. (27). But why is P_t, the overall price level, in the f.o.c?

2) Any other reference you would recommend for the most basic and simple example of how to do capital adjustment costs?

Thanks.
Attachments
screen1.pdf
(7.93 KiB) Downloaded 78 times
Lexes9
 
Posts: 10
Joined: Wed Mar 30, 2016 11:09 pm

Re: Basic question about investment adjustment costs.

Postby jpfeifer » Sat Jul 02, 2016 5:26 pm

Please provide a full reference. Usually the Benchmark DSGE model is a good place to start: http://www.econ.upenn.edu/~jesusfv/econometricsDSGE.pdf
------------
Johannes Pfeifer
University of Cologne
https://sites.google.com/site/pfeiferecon/
jpfeifer
 
Posts: 6940
Joined: Sun Feb 21, 2010 4:02 pm
Location: Cologne, Germany

Re: Basic question about investment adjustment costs.

Postby Lexes9 » Sun Jul 03, 2016 10:53 am

http://www.economiaynegocios.uahurtado. ... strepo.pdf

The Case for a Countercyclical Rule-Based Fiscal Regime, Carlos J. Garcia and Jorge E. Restrepo, Central Bank of Chile.

What I don't get is:

I know eq (28) is the maximisation of (26) s.t. (27) and Q is the lagrange multiplier. But I don't know why P_t (aggregate price index) dividing P^I_t (investment goods price index) is there. Apart from that, my result is the same.

I know eq (29) is the choice of K, my results are somewhat similar but why the forward looking terms and -again- the price index?

Thanks a lot.
Last edited by Lexes9 on Sun Jul 03, 2016 5:42 pm, edited 1 time in total.
Lexes9
 
Posts: 10
Joined: Wed Mar 30, 2016 11:09 pm

Re: Basic question about investment adjustment costs.

Postby jpfeifer » Sun Jul 03, 2016 5:39 pm

My guess is that equation (26) is wrong. For example, the discounting of the future value is notably absent. Moreover, it is never clearly stated how Q is defined. It may well be that the Lagrange multiplier on the constraint has been defined as P_t*Q_t, which could explain the expression.

You might want to take a look at Basu/Bundick (2015): Uncertainty Shocks in a Model of Effective Demand. They have a similar setup (except for the relative price of investment)
------------
Johannes Pfeifer
University of Cologne
https://sites.google.com/site/pfeiferecon/
jpfeifer
 
Posts: 6940
Joined: Sun Feb 21, 2010 4:02 pm
Location: Cologne, Germany

Re: Basic question about investment adjustment costs.

Postby Lexes9 » Sun Jul 03, 2016 5:43 pm

Yes, it also looks wrong to me. I will check the reference you gave me. Thanks a lot.
Lexes9
 
Posts: 10
Joined: Wed Mar 30, 2016 11:09 pm


Return to Dynare help

Who is online

Users browsing this forum: No registered users and 8 guests