Hi,
I am estimating a two-country monetary union model on 5 observables: GDP and inflation for both countries and the common interest rate. I have already estimated this model with Bayesian techniques and the absolute fit of the model (i.e. observables vs. 1-step ahead forecast) is acceptable. My problem is associated with the variance decomposition, since the decomposition of output (y) is not being explained by any of the shocks!! How could this be?
VARIANCE DECOMPOSITION (in percent)
e_a e_d e_pih e_ystar e_R e_pstar e_astar
pi 0.09 0.01 0.01 46.66 47.82 0.54 4.87
y 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00
ystar 0.00 0.00 0.00 38.63 38.63 2.27 20.47
pstar 0.00 0.00 0.00 46.82 46.82 0.64 5.72
R 0.00 0.00 0.00 66.26 29.23 0.45 4.05
Any insights would be highly appreciated?
B.